Dart Firing Stun Gun Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which combination describes the electrical charge delivered by the stun gun?
• What process helps prevent many physical encounters?
• Which device is about the size of a flashlight, runs on nine-volt batteries, and boosts voltage to 20,000-150,000 volts while reducing amperage?
• Which principle guides the use of force to be proportional to the threat?
• When articulating the decision to use a DFSG, the basis should include training, experience, and assessment of the circumstances.
• Which statement best describes the role of de-escalation in deciding to deploy a stun device?
• Low voltage can injure if the ______ is high enough.
• In which environments should you avoid using a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• What information do identification tags convey?
• Which action is NOT a component of post-incident reporting?
• If an officer decides to use a dart firing stun gun, he or she will be expected to articulate that, based on ______, _____, and _____
• Excessive force claims are analyzed under which constitutional amendment?
• Which term describes the broad classification for unexplained in-custody deaths?
• The reporting must include an explanation of what?
• Electricity will not pass to others in contact with the subject unless contact is made directly between or on the probes.
• Which items are included in comprehensive training for Dart Firing Stun Gun use?
• Which phrase best captures the objective described for handling suspects safely and practically?
• What is the recommended approach to monitoring a subject after deployment for potential complications?
• The device affects which body system?
• What is the purpose of a safety switch on a stun device?
• The first dart-firing stun gun was developed in which year?
• What legal considerations govern possession of a stun gun by civilians?
• The ideal area of the body for drive stun is what?
• If a subject is suspected to be under illicit substances affecting coordination, which steps should you take?
• Which of the following describes an 'Alternative target' site?
• The stun gun was invented in the ______
• Before deploying a DFSG, what should the officer warn the subject about?
• What is the typical time window after custody for unexplained in-custody deaths to occur?
• The use of a dart-firing stun gun is not a substitute for the use of a _______
• Which officer is designated to operate the DFSG during an encounter?
• Which of the following indicates how the two darts are delivered from the main unit?
• What medical conditions may require additional caution before using a stun gun?
• Which environmental factors should be considered before deploying a stun device to reduce slip hazards and ensure stability?
• Which action is required for the charge to pass into the subject's body?
• How should you handle cartridges when transporting or storing?
• What is released after firing the stun gun that helps investigators identify which gun was fired and at what location?
• What is the best approach for handling subjects suffering from psychosis to protect them and others from potential injury?
• TASER's name references an early 1900s children's novel by ______
• Conventional stun guns use which type of batteries?
• What is the recommended practice for re-holstering after an encounter?
• The number of five-second cycles should be limited to which actions?
• What component connects the two darts to the TASER device?
• EMD stands for electro-muscular disruption. Which body system is primarily affected?
• Which factor is NOT a consideration when deciding to deploy a stun device?
• What is the minimum backup presence during DFSG deployment?
• _______ is the measure of electrical current or power.
• What is the primary function of the probes when the stun gun is fired?
• Which case is commonly cited as establishing TASER use law?
• Electricity can arc through clothing and which type of materials?
• What is the ethical obligation of officers or security personnel when using a stun device?
• If a subject continues to not comply, and when appropriate, warn of the device's ______.
• Which statement best describes the deployment roles?
• The portion of a subject's body that should be targeted for back shots and lower center mass is known as what?
• When a dart-firing stun gun fires, the probes discharge into the subject. The officer then applies a drive stun away from the probes to achieve what?
• The TASER device is commonly shaped like a what?
• What does DFSG stand for?
• Before deploying a stun device, what environmental factors should be assessed to minimize risk to bystanders?
• Which factors influence the decision to deploy a stun device versus retreating?
• During engagement, what should be done to maintain electrical contact as the subject moves?
• Under Florida Statutes, how is a dart firing stun gun categorized?
• How should the 5-second cycles be applied?
• For a stun gun to operate, electricity must flow between the
• What best distinguishes a non-lethal stun device from a firearm in terms of intent and lethality?
• The charge will pass through heavy clothing and skin, but the charge is not intense enough to ________ the subject's body unless it is applied for extended periods.
• Which of the following is NOT typically required for certification to carry or deploy a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• Claims that officers used excessive force in the course of an arrest, investigatory stop, or other seizure are analyzed under the ______ objective reasonableness standard.
• Who invented the stun gun?
• Which statute states that it is not a violation to carry, for purposes of lawful self-defense in a concealed manner, a dart-firing stun gun?
• The stun gun is used to control a person during an arrest or custody when resistance escalates from which to which?
• Which factor most directly determines whether a stun device injures a subject?
• The decision to use a DFSG requires what kind of reporting?
• What is the consequence of failing to report a stun device incident?
• Removed probes should be treated as ______.
• If the probe spread is very minimal due to a close shot or a drive stun with a live cartridge, what action away from the probes will increase the spread and cause incapacitation?
• What is the minimum annual training requirement in hours for the use of a dart-firing stun gun?
• What should you do if the device shows a fault indicator during inspection?
• What should be done if a bystander is accidentally struck by a dart?
• Why is it important to avoid dry-firing or discharging without a proper target?
• Which condition increases the risk of injury when using a stun device?
• A stun device's current frequency is designed to do what relative to the body's signals?
• Who will operate the DFSG?
• What voltage range is typically produced by the boosted circuitry in stun devices?
• What is the usual discharge duration for a stun device when activated?
• Which term describes a device that propels electrified darts, probes, or barbs?
• How long is a cycle?
• Subjects expecting enforcement encounters may conceal which items under clothing to reduce the device's effectiveness?
• Which document outlines the rules and standards for use of a stun gun in many jurisdictions?
• What training is typically required to be certified to carry or deploy a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• The electrical charge from a stun gun is typically unable to damage the body unless applied for what duration?
• Which medical conditions may require additional caution before using a stun gun? (Variant of safety considerations)
• How many backup officers should be present to handcuff the subject after the officer with the DFSG has gained compliance?
• Drive stun is intended to produce which effect on the subject when used appropriately?
• Dart firing stun guns are a subtype of which broad category of devices?
• What is the term for the predetermined amount of time a stun device will discharge automatically when activated?
• The ______ of a subject's body should be below the neck area for back shots and the lower center mass for the front or large muscle groups such as the back
• The circuitry includes transformers that ______ the voltage and reduce amperage; the boosted voltage typically ranges from ______ volts.
• If all efforts to verbally de-escalate the situation are exhausted or are not feasible, the use of a dart-firing stun gun may be ______.
• Which factor must be considered when judging whether officers' use of force was justifiable at the time it occurred?
• Why is verbal de-escalation before deploying a stun device important?
• The subject may not show physical effects from contact but may sustain injuries from _____ caused by the weapon’s effects on the body.
• Drive stun is described as what type of tool?
• What distinguishes cartridge-based stun devices from direct-contact devices?
• Exposing a subject who is standing in water to a dart-firing stun gun does not cause electrocution or increase the power applied to the subject.
• Which statement about device safety and readiness is true?
• What feature do the electrodes have to help them grab clothing?
• Why is it important to know the device's effective range and limitations?
• In what situations is de-escalation preferred over device deployment?
• The path of least resistance on a dart-firing stun gun is
• The wider the probes spread on the target, the greater the effectiveness of the weapon.
• What is the recommended response when a subject refuses commands and appears intoxicated or impaired?
• What is the importance of continuous training and re-certification?
• One of the two most common types of stun guns is a basic model.
• The TASER device is shaped like a handgun and uses what to propel its two darts?
• What is the primary purpose of restraint devices in correctional settings?
• Stun guns and dart-firing stun guns are available for purchase and legal use by which group in Florida?
• Which statement best describes the factors to consider before deploying a stun device?
• Which of the following best describes the lawful limit on the number of 5-second cycles?
• Dart-firing stun weapons can propel darts up to how many feet?
• If only one probe strikes, which function can act as a second probe by completing the circuit?
• Which term describes a state of heightened agitation and delirium often seen with stimulant use?
• Which acronym stands for 'Dart Firing Stun Gun'?
• Which Florida statute was a response to inconsistent stun gun use statewide?
• The dart firing stun gun is used to control a person during an arrest or custody when his or her resistance escalates from ______ physical resistance to ______ physical resistance
• Which groups are noted to have the greater standoff distance in DFSG design?
• If the officer misses or only one probe hits, what is the recommended next step?
• Drive stun occurs when the front of the dart-firing stun gun is directly touched to the body. What term describes this action?
• In the described context, resistance escalates to active when the person has the apparent ability to threaten the officer or escape. Which scenario best describes this context?
• In cases of unexplained deaths involving in-custody subjects who have been tased, bizarre behavior is due to which mental states?
• Which statement best describes readiness for use of a stun device?
• The electrodes are fitted with small _____ so that they will grab onto a subject's clothing.
• What should be checked during a pre-use inspection of a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• What are the two small darts connected by wire to the TASER commonly called?
• What personal protective equipment (PPE) considerations may be relevant during deployment?
• What are the marks left on a subject's body after a drive stun application called?
• The dart-firing stun gun is not to be used to ______ a subject to give statements or perform an illegal act.
• Which acronym stands for 'Conducted Energy Weapon'?
• What is the recommended approach when dealing with individuals with mental health conditions?
• The DFSG uses the same mechanism as which common device?
• What does EID stand for?
• How are the TASER discharge electrodes configured relative to the housing?
• According to Florida Statutes, you are allowed to decide to use a dart-firing stun gun only when a subject is actively physically resisting; you would not use it for verbal defiance, belligerence, punishment, or horse play.
• Which officer takes physical control after compliance is achieved?
• How should you manage equipment after training exercises to avoid contamination or misuse?
• In the context of equipment security, what is a primary reason to store stun devices away from unauthorized access?
• Which statement best describes the DFSG's role relative to firearms?
• What is the primary purpose of documenting faults and maintenance actions for a stun device?
• When applying force, which approach aligns with the use-of-force continuum?
• Probes removed from the skin should be treated as _______.
• Is it appropriate to use a stun device on a moving vehicle occupant?
• In the event of a deeply embedded probe, which personnel should perform the removal?
• Why is it important to avoid aiming at the head or neck region when possible?
• Which is a recommended post-incident reporting practice?
• Which statement correctly describes the roles during DFSG deployment?
• The court has established law on the use of a TASER in the case of _______
• What is the role of medical staff in the aftermath of a stun device deployment?
• What immediate effect does a dart-firing stun gun have on its target's system?
• The TASER device propels two small darts using what mechanism?
• Which statement best describes the proper re-holstering procedure after an encounter?
• The ______ are used to control and restrain, mostly in correctional settings.
• Stun guns operate at ______ currents.
• If the subject begins to roll after deployment, which action should the officer take to maintain electrical contact?
• The quickest and safest way to handle a non-compliant subject exhibiting excited delirium is to _____ and _____, if necessary.
• The use of a DFSG in a punitive manner without lawful authority may be violating a citizen's _______
• How should you store a Dart Firing Stun Gun when not in use?
• What should you do if the device experiences a misfire or partial discharge?
• What does NMI stand for?
• The brand name TASER is associated with what kind of device?
• The basic idea of a stun gun is to disrupt the body's communication system by generating a ___________,___________ electrical charge.
• What does the acronym EMD stand for in this context?
• Use of force incidents are judged on whether a reasonable person would believe the officers' actions were justifiable based on the ______ known to officers at the time that they used force.
• What is the primary purpose of a Dart Firing Stun Gun in law enforcement or security contexts?
• Which acronym corresponds to 'Conducted Energy Device'?
• How should you assess a subject's physiological state after deployment?
• What is the recommended approach regarding de-escalation when using a stun device?
• What environmental or structural hazards could impede safe use of a stun device?
• Which document best reflects the regulatory basis for stun device use across jurisdictions?
• The subject has a hard time telling his or her muscles to move and may become _______, ______, and _______.
• The reporting must include which element regarding the use of the DFSG?
• Electronic control devices are all generally built using the same principle, which is delivering relatively _______ (amperage and wattage) coupled with ______ to a subject
• _______ sites might be the back near the shoulders or the back of the legs where, if clothed, the clothing fits tighter and the probes will conduct electricity to the subject more effectively
• Which statement best describes the legal status of stun guns in Florida?
• Which statement best reflects responsible use of a stun device?
• A form of psychosis resulting from drug use is called?
• What does CED stand for?
• What should be done if a drive stun is used with close range to ensure incapacitation is achieved?
• _______ should remove all deeply embedded probes or probes that penetrate sensitive tissue areas (i.e., neck, face, groin, female breast, etc.).
• Which statement correctly describes arcing through materials in the context of DFSG use?
• Which acronym corresponds to 'Electronic Control Device'?
• Which statement best describes safety considerations regarding the line of fire?
• Electricity tends to flow along which path?
• Which of the following is NOT listed among the mental states associated with bizarre behavior in tased individuals?
• What wattage range is described as a pain compliance tool that does not interfere with the nervous system?
• Which statement is NOT accurate regarding civilian possession of a stun gun?
• The most prudent approach may be for the officer to do what?
• What is the importance of maintaining a safe stance and control when securing a subject after deployment?
• In this mode, the dart-firing stun gun works as a conventional stun gun and is a pain-compliance tool only.
• What agencies or bodies may certify stun device training?
• The DFSG design enables greater standoff distance; which two user groups are specified for the longer distances?
• Who will take physical control of the subject?
• This new weapon was called a TASER©, an acronym for _________
• Which statement best describes PPE usage during deployment?
• What is the recommended distance to maintain from a subject when deploying a stun device?
• The device generally used as a crowd control device for public riots and in correctional settings is the
• In as safe and practical a manner as possible, an officer should attempt to discern if a subject is ______.
• What is a primary safety consideration to minimize bystander risk when aiming a stun device?
• Which custody procedure is appropriate for individuals subjected to dart-firing stun gun use, even if they are receiving medical care?
• What does SDS stand for?
• In TASER-style devices, which description matches the discharge electrodes?
• Which statement is true regarding injury risk with stun devices?
• Avoid ______ a subject's head, throat, face, breast, chest, or area of the heart, groin, genitals
• What is a recommended practice to maintain safe distance when deploying a stun device?
• What should you do if the device is dropped during deployment?
• Name two risk factors that increase the likelihood of injury when a stun device is used.
• Which combination best describes the energy delivered by electronic control devices?
• Which term describes the energy that is used in these devices to produce the electric shock?
• Which principle applies to the use-of-force continuum relevant to stun devices?
• If the dart firing stun gun gets wet, what should you do?
• The reporting adjectives describing the DFSG use should be which pair?
• If a subject is near water at the time of a DFSG deployment, what is a possible risk?
• Which action is NOT recommended when a subject may be under the influence affecting coordination?
• What is the purpose of a device's safety features in everyday carry?
• Which of the following describes the typical immediate state of the subject during stun exposure?
• Which component of a stun gun delivers the electrical pulse to the target?
• What does CEW stand for?
• What does ECD stand for?
• What is the role of training in the safe use of a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• What type of information should be documented after an incident involving a stun device?
• What is gained when pain or involuntary neuromuscular contractions occur, enabling the officer to restrain the subject?
• The subject's torso and limbs will contract or extend depending on what?
• Which of the following is a best practice for post-incident reporting after using a stun device?
• An officer should first attempt to gain control of a situation by using ________
• The charge can pass through what barrier?
• Which acronym stands for a device that immobilizes via electric energy?
• Which statute states that a person may openly carry a dartfiring stun gun for purposes of lawful self-defense?
• When a stun gun is pressed against a subject and the trigger is held, the charge passes into the subject's body.
• Why is it important to maintain a log of all uses of a stun device?
• What is the overall goal of the stun gun with respect to the body's communication system?
• How does a stun device differ from pepper spray or baton in deployment considerations?
• The TASER device uses what to propel two small darts connected by wire to the device?
• What condition could cause ignition when a dart-firing stun gun is deployed on a subject?